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IB Biology A2.3: Viruses worked solutions

Worked solutions to every practice question in A2.3: Viruses of Photon Biology: Study Guide for the IB Diploma (SL & HL). Try each question, then compare your working with the full solution.

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Basic practice

Question B1

HL[1 mark]
An unknown virus has an RNA genome and no surrounding lipid layer. Which material must form its capsid? A. Cellulose B. Lipid only C. Protein D. DNA only
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The capsid is the protein packaging associated with a viral genome. RNA can be the hereditary material, so DNA is not a universal capsid constituent. A lipid envelope is optional, and cellulose is not viral packaging. Award 1 for C.

Final answer

C. Protein.

Question B2

HL[2 marks]
A virus encodes its coat proteins. Name the host structure that makes them and the process it performs.
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Viral genes specify the amino acid sequence, but host ribosomes assemble the polypeptide by translating viral mRNA. Award 1 for ribosomes and 1 for translation. Merely stating that the host helps replication does not identify either requirement.

Final answer

Host ribosomes; translation.

Question B3

HL[2 marks]
HIV contains two copies of its RNA genome. Explain why this does not describe one double-stranded RNA molecule.
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Each HIV genome copy is single-stranded RNA (1). Having two copies counts molecules; double-stranded describes complementary pairing within a duplex (1). The number two by itself supplies no evidence of such pairing.

Final answer

They are separate copies of single-stranded RNA, not complementary strands paired in one duplex.

Question B4

HL[2 marks]
A budding particle gains an outer lipid bilayer. Identify that layer and its immediate source.
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The acquired outer bilayer is a viral envelope (1). In budding, a patch of host membrane surrounds the viral components and pinches off with them (1). The internal protein capsid is a different layer.

Final answer

The envelope, acquired from a host membrane.

Question B5

HL[2 marks]
After phage components have been synthesised, state the next two events that produce and release complete particles.
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Assembly puts genome copies and coat proteins into complete progeny phages (1). Host lysis then allows those particles to leave (1). Copying DNA is not enough to create a complete particle.

Final answer

Assembly, then host lysis and release.

Question B6

HL[1 mark]
A lambda-infected bacterium passes integrated phage DNA to intact daughter cells. Which description fits this phase? A. Lysis B. Lysogeny C. Assembly D. Translation
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Integrated phage DNA copied in a surviving bacterial lineage is a prophage in the lysogenic phase. Lysis would destroy the cell; assembly is particle construction and translation makes proteins. Award 1 for B.

Final answer

B. Lysogeny with prophage inheritance.

Question B7

HL[2 marks]
Give one reason, other than copying-error rate, why a viral population may evolve rapidly, and link it to the speed of change.
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Award 1 for a valid non-error-rate factor and 1 for its causal link. Short generations permit repeated replication and differential reproduction over a short interval. Alternatively, explain how strong selection changes variant frequencies, or how compatible coinfection permits genetic exchange. Large numbers alone do not establish a frequency change.

Final answer

Short generation intervals allow many rounds of selection in a short time.

Question B8

HL[3 marks]
Compare lambda and a coronavirus using genome type, envelope and overall form.
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Award one mark for each paired criterion: lambda dsDNA versus coronavirus ssRNA (1); absent versus present envelope (1); head-and-tail form versus roughly spherical enveloped form with spikes (1). A list of names without matched features earns no comparison marks.

Final answer

Lambda: dsDNA, no envelope, head and tail. Coronavirus: ssRNA, envelope, roughly spherical particle with spikes.

Tutorial practice

Question T1

HL[4 marks]
A display card must distinguish HIV from lambda. Write a paired comparison. (a) Compare their nucleic acid type and strand organisation. [2] (b) Compare envelope and capsid or overall form. [2]
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Award 1 for HIV RNA versus lambda DNA, 1 for single-stranded copies versus double-stranded DNA, 1 for envelope present versus absent, and 1 for HIV conical internal capsid versus lambda head-and-tail organisation. Do not infer genome chemistry from shape alone.

Final answer

HIV has ssRNA in two copies, an envelope and a conical capsid; lambda has dsDNA, no envelope and a head with a flexible tail.

Question T2

HL[4 marks]
In a supplied phage model, ATP and amino acids remain available after ribosomes are selectively disabled. No viral coat protein is produced. (a) Explain the failed cellular process. [2] (b) Explain the two distinct contributions of the supplies that remain. [2]
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(a) Ribosomes perform translation (1), using viral mRNA to assemble a viral polypeptide (1). (b) Amino acids supply monomers for the coat proteins (1). ATP supplies energy for biosynthetic processes (1). Ribosome inhibition prevents translation even with these supplies present. The question gives a selective effect; do not infer that DNA replication is also inhibited.

Final answer

Ribosomes translate viral mRNA. Amino acids supply building blocks; ATP supports energy-requiring synthesis. Available materials and energy do not replace translation machinery.

Question T3

HL[4 marks]
One lambda culture produces assembled particles and ruptured cells. Another retains intact cells carrying phage–chromosome junctions. (a) Identify the first route and explain the role of rupture. [2] (b) Identify the DNA state in the second culture and explain its persistence. [2]
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(a) Assembled progeny and rupture identify lytic development (1); rupture releases particles (1). (b) Joined bacterial and viral sequences identify an integrated prophage (1); host chromosome replication and binary fission pass it to daughter bacteria without immediate virion production (1). Both routes involve viral DNA copying, so copying alone is not a sufficient distinction.

Final answer

First culture: lytic development and release. Second: lysogeny; integrated prophage is inherited during binary fission.

Question T4

HL[5 marks]
Six bacteria each carry one integrated lambda genome. Each lineage passes through four rounds of binary fission; assume no death, induction or loss of the inserted DNA. (a) Calculate the final number of bacteria and integrated phage genomes. [2] (b) Explain how the integrated sequence is maintained. [2] (c) Name the switch that could later produce free phages. [1]
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(a) Four doublings give 6\times2^4=96 bacteria (1). One prophage per bacterium gives 96 integrated copies (1). (b) The prophage is replicated with the bacterial chromosome (1). Binary fission gives each daughter a chromosome containing the integrated sequence (1). (c) Induction can switch a prophage into lytic development (1), after which genome copying, assembly and lysis can produce free particles.

Final answer

96 bacteria, 96 prophage copies; chromosome copying and binary fission transmit them. Induction can initiate lytic development.

Question T5

HL[5 marks]
A viral protein gene resembles a cellular gene. A student concludes that all viruses must have escaped from cells. (a) Explain why the observation is compatible with escape. [2] (b) Give one reason the conclusion about all viruses is too strong. [1] (c) Outline two alternative origin hypotheses. [2]
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(a) Escape proposes cellular genetic material gaining independent transmission between hosts (1). A homologous cellular gene is compatible with a cellular connection (1). (b) Gene similarity can also follow later transfer or common ancestry; one gene cannot establish the history of all viruses (1). (c) Reduction proposes loss of cellular functions from parasites (1); pre-cellular replicator models propose earlier genetic entities later associated with cells (1). Present host dependence does not by itself resolve which route occurred.

Final answer

Gene escape is compatible, but shared code and gene similarity do not prove one origin. Reduction and a pre-cellular replicator route remain alternatives; evidence can support multiple origins.

Question T6

HL[4 marks]
Two compatible influenza A strains coinfect a cell. In one offspring, an HA-coding segment comes from the first parent and an NA-coding segment comes from the second. (a) Name the process and distinguish it from mutation. [2] (b) Explain one possible consequence for protection from earlier exposure. [2]
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(a) Reassortment packages RNA segments from different parental strains into progeny (1). Mutation changes the nucleotide sequence within genetic material rather than requiring a mixed parental segment set (1). (b) A changed surface protein may have altered antigenic sites (1), so antibodies generated against earlier variants may bind less effectively, complicating vaccine matching (1). This does not prove complete immune escape or pandemic potential.

Final answer

Reassortment mixes genome segments. Mutation changes sequence within a segment. HA/NA changes may reduce prior antibody recognition and complicate vaccine matching.

Question T7

HL[4 marks]
Preparation M contains a purified viral spike protein. Preparation N delivers mRNA encoding that spike. Supplied principle: an appropriate protein antigen can stimulate a specific immune response. (a) Link each preparation to its use of a viral structural feature. [2] (b) Explain why neither description alone identifies a complete replicating virus. [2]
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(a) M directly provides a viral surface protein antigen (1). N provides mRNA instructions that host ribosomes translate into that protein (1). (b) The purified spike lacks the genome and particle needed for viral replication (1). The stated mRNA encodes only one protein, not the complete genome and structures for a replicating virion (1). Detailed immune-cell pathways are not required by the supplied model.

Final answer

M supplies the protein antigen directly; N supplies instructions translated into it. A spike alone or an incomplete mRNA sequence lacks a complete viral genome and particle.

Question T8

HL[4 marks]
In synthetic samples, mean difference from the original viral sequence rises from 1.0% to 3.5%, while mean pairwise difference within each sample falls from 1.6% to 0.4%. (a) Distinguish the two measurements and explain why the trends can differ. [2] (b) Calculate the relative decrease in within-sample difference. [1] (c) Suggest one explanation without claiming it is proved. [1]
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(a) Divergence is difference from the original reference; diversity is variation within the current population (1). They compare different pairs of sequences, so one may rise while the other falls (1). (b) Relative change is (0.4-1.6)/1.6\times100=-75\%: a 75% decrease (1). (c) Selection favouring a subset, or a bottleneck, could reduce within-population variation while retaining divergent descendants; these means cannot distinguish causes (1).

Final answer

Divergence rises; diversity falls by 75%. A narrower surviving population may remain far from the original sequence; selection is one possible cause, not proved by these data.

Advanced practice

Question A1

HL[6 marks]
Three selective blocks act in a supplied lytic model. X stops viral DNA copying but not protein synthesis. Y stops translation but not DNA copying. Z prevents lysis but not DNA copying, translation or assembly. Only newly copied genomes may be packaged. (a) Predict complete progeny production under X and Y, explaining each. [2] (b) Predict intracellular and extracellular particles under Z. [2] (c) Z is removed and free particles appear. Explain why this need not imply immediate new assembly, and propose one measurement that would distinguish the two blocks. [2]
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(a) X can make coat proteins but cannot supply newly copied genomes for packaging, so no complete progeny form (1). Y can make genome copies but not the new protein coats needed for complete particles (1). (b) Z allows both components and assembly (1); complete particles can therefore accumulate inside cells although none are released by lysis (1). (c) Release after removing Z is consistent with liberation of particles assembled earlier (1). Absence of extracellular particles alone cannot distinguish an assembly block from a release block; intracellular particle measurement supplies that distinction (1). Treat each stipulated block as selective, without inventing secondary effects.

Final answer

X lacks new genomes; Y lacks new coat proteins; neither makes complete progeny. Z accumulates assembled particles inside intact cells. Removing Z permits release without proving new synthesis is required.

Question A2

HL[6 marks]
In a supplied influenza model, only three RNA segments differ between two parents. Each new particle independently receives one version of each variable segment; all eight segments are otherwise present and compatible. (a) Calculate all distinguishable combinations and those mixing parental origins. [2] (b) If each version is equally likely, calculate the mixed percentage and state why that assumption matters. [2] (c) Distinguish this process from mutation and give one limit on interpreting a mixed genome. [2]
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(a) Three independent binary choices give 2^3=8 distinguishable combinations (1). Subtract the two all-one-parent sets to obtain 6 mixed combinations (1). (b) With the stated equal-choice assumption, 6/8\times100=75\% are mixed (1). Without equal packaging probabilities, the combination count alone would not determine that percentage (1). (c) Reassortment changes the combination of whole segments without requiring a new mutation within a segment (1). Efficient infection, host-to-host spread and immune effects require separate evidence; a mixed genome alone proves none of these (1).

Final answer

Eight distinguishable segment combinations, six mixed-parent combinations; mixed proportion 75%. Reassortment need not alter nucleotide sequence within any segment or establish transmission.

Question A3

HL[6 marks]
Two host species share the same inherited viral insertion at the same genomic position. Their lineages split 84 million years ago. Separately, two unrelated viral branches each change independently from A to G at one site. (a) Infer a minimum insertion age and state its assumption. [2] (b) Interpret the two G states and their limit as ancestry evidence. [2] (c) Evaluate a claim that these findings prove all viruses share one cellular origin. [2]
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(a) An insertion before the host split is at least 84 million years old (1). This assumes one ancestral insertion inherited by both lineages rather than independent insertion or later transfer (1). (b) Independent A-to-G changes produce convergence at this site (1); the shared endpoint alone cannot identify a recent common ancestor or a whole-genome relationship (1). (c) Inherited viral DNA documents a historical association (1). It does not identify the origin of every viral lineage; shared code, diverse genomes and extreme parasitism are compatible with more than one history (1).

Final answer

The insertion is at least 84 million years old under a single-insertion inheritance model. Independent G states are convergence, not evidence of a recent shared viral ancestor. Neither observation resolves every viral origin.

Question A4

HL[6 marks]
A synthetic population initially contains 80 susceptible and 20 resistant viral genomes. During one treated round, each susceptible genome yields one descendant and each resistant genome yields six. In a later drug-free round, each susceptible descendant yields four and each resistant descendant yields two. Assume no mutation or migration. (a) Calculate the treated descendant numbers and resistant percentage. [2] (b) Calculate the resistant percentage after the drug-free round. [2] (c) Explain both changes without invoking a new mutation. [2]
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(a) Treated descendants: susceptible 80\times1=80; resistant 20\times6=120 (1). Resistant fraction 120/200=60\%, up from 20% (1). (b) Drug-free descendants: susceptible 80\times4=320; resistant 120\times2=240 (1). Resistant fraction 240/560\times100=42.9\% to three significant figures (1). (c) The drug changes relative reproductive success, favouring an already-present resistant variant (1). Without drug, resistance carries the supplied reproductive disadvantage, so its frequency falls; this is selection under a changed environment rather than directed mutation (1).

Final answer

Resistance rises from 20% to 60% with treatment, then falls to about 42.9% without it. Differential reproduction changes frequencies without new mutation.

Connected questions

Question C1

Connected questions · HL[6 marks]
A2.3 + A1.2 + D1.2. Two RNA constructs encode a viral surface protein. In a supplied code fragment, GGU and GGC both specify glycine, whereas GGU to GUU changes glycine to valine. Cells can translate either construct; neither RNA is a complete viral genome. (a) Compare the effects of the two substitutions on the polypeptide. [2] (b) Explain a possible consequence for antigen shape and why it is uncertain. [2] (c) Name the host machinery used and explain why RNA presence alone does not establish viral identity. [2]
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(a) GGU-to-GGC leaves glycine unchanged because different codons can encode the same amino acid (1). GGU-to-GUU substitutes valine for glycine, changing primary structure (1). (b) Different side-chain interactions may alter folding or the surface antigen shape (1). Binding or immune-response measurements are needed because one substitution does not guarantee an altered epitope or loss of protection (1). (c) Host ribosomes translate the RNA into protein (1). A single-protein RNA lacks the complete viral genome and particle required to represent a replicating virion (1).

Final answer

GGU to GGC is synonymous; GGU to GUU changes primary structure. A changed residue may affect folding and antigen shape, but sequence alone does not establish the effect. Host ribosomes make protein; neither construct is a complete virus.

Question C2

Connected questions · HL[7 marks]
A2.3 + D4.1 + C3.2. In a synthetic competition assay, variants P and Q start at equal frequency. Q carries an altered surface antigen. With antibodies against P present, P yields 20 infectious descendants and Q yields 80. Without those antibodies, P yields 90 and Q yields 60. These are matched assays, not sequential rounds. (a) Calculate Q frequency at the end of each assay. [2] (b) Link Q antigen structure to a possible effect of the antibodies. [2] (c) Explain why selection favours different variants in the two environments. [2] (d) State one evolutionary or immune inference these data cannot establish. [1]
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(a) With antibodies, Q is 80/(20+80)=80\% (1). Without them, Q is 60/(90+60)=40\% (1). (b) Altered antigen shape may reduce binding by antibodies elicited against P (1), so more Q particles remain able to infect and produce descendants (1). (c) Q has higher relative reproductive success in the antibody condition (1) but lower success in its absence, so the favoured variant depends on the environment (1). (d) These data do not show that antibody exposure generated the variant, nor do they demonstrate escape from every immune response; state either inference limit (1).

Final answer

Q reaches 80% with antibodies and 40% without them. Antibody binding can favour Q if its altered antigen is recognised less well; it has a cost in the antibody-free assay. No directed mutation or complete immune escape is demonstrated.

Question C3

Connected questions · HL[6 marks]
A2.3 + D1.1 + D2.1. One bacterium with a single integrated lambda genome completes six divisions. Assume every daughter inherits one prophage and no cells die. Then exactly one-quarter of the cells are induced; each induced cell releases 45 phages and lyses. Other cells remain lysogenic. (a) Calculate cell and integrated-copy numbers just before induction. [2] (b) Calculate released phages and intact lysogens afterwards. [2] (c) Explain the link between DNA replication and prophage inheritance. [2]
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(a) Six doublings give 1\times2^6=64 bacteria (1); one prophage per chromosome gives 64 integrated copies at the stated sampling time (1). (b) 64/4=16 cells are induced, giving 16\times45=720 released phages (1). 64-16=48 intact lysogens remain (1). (c) Host DNA replication copies the integrated prophage (1), and binary fission distributes chromosomes to daughter bacteria (1). Integrated genome copies, cell numbers and released particles refer to different entities and times.

Final answer

64 cells and prophages before induction; 16 induced cells release 720 phages; 48 lysogens remain intact. Integrated DNA is copied with the chromosome and inherited by binary fission.

From the book

Photon Biology: Study Guide for the IB Diploma (SL & HL)

Viruses from the core ideas to full exam questions, with question types, worked examples and graded practice.

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