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IB Chemistry S1.1: Introduction to the particulate nature of matter worked solutions

Worked solutions to every practice question in S1.1: Introduction to the particulate nature of matter of Photon Chemistry: Study Guide for the IB Diploma (SL & HL). Try each question, then compare your working with the full solution.

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Basic practice

Question Q01

element-compound[1 mark]
Every particle in a pure sample contains four chemically bonded atoms, all of the same element. Which conclusion follows?
A It is a compound because each particle has several atoms. B It is a mixture because the atoms are bonded together. C It is an element because only one type of atom is present. D It is heterogeneous because each particle contains four atoms.
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Only one element occurs. Bonding four atoms into each particle does not introduce another kind of atom. Therefore C is correct.

Final answer

C

Question Q02

T2[1 mark]
A heat-stable substance Z is examined in two vessels. Vessel I contains Z dissolved uniformly in water. Vessel II contains pure Z after melting, with no water present. Which pair of state symbols describes Z?
A I: (aq); II: (l). B I: (l); II: (aq). C I: (s); II: (l). D I: (aq); II: (g).
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In vessel I, Z is dispersed in water and takes (aq). In vessel II, the pure melt is liquid and takes (l). Therefore A is correct.

Final answer

A

Question Q04

T2[1 mark]
Solid glass beads are poured from a cup into a bowl. The beads retain their individual shapes. Which description is consistent with this observation?
A Whole beads change position while their constituent particles remain about fixed positions. B The ability to pour shows that the glass has become a liquid. C The particles within each bead move freely throughout the bowl. D Every particle inside each bead is motionless because its shape is fixed.
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Each bead is a solid object. Moving whole beads does not free their internal particles from their local positions; they still vibrate. Therefore A is correct.

Final answer

A

Question Q03

T1[1 mark]
An unfamiliar solid powder could be an element, a compound or a mixture. Which observation establishes that it is a mixture?
A It melts without changing total mass. B A non-reactive solvent removes one original substance and leaves a chemically different original substance. C Its particles move more vigorously on warming. D It forms one uniform liquid after melting.
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The non-reactive solvent separates two chemically different original substances. The powder therefore contained more than one substance, so B is correct.

Final answer

B

Question Q07

T1[1 mark]
A workshop rinse contains suspended aluminium oxide powder and dissolved potassium nitrate. The powder is insoluble in water. Which operation removes the powder while keeping the dissolved substance in the collected liquid?
A   Pass the rinse through filter paper.
B   Evaporate the entire rinse to dryness.
C   Cool the rinse until all its water freezes.
D   Collect the vapour produced by boiling the rinse.
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Filter paper retains the insoluble oxide as residue. Dissolved potassium nitrate passes through in the filtrate, which is the desired liquid. Therefore A is correct.

Final answer

A

Question Q08

T1[1 mark]
In a paper-chromatography run, component \mathrm{L} remains near the start while component \mathrm{M} moves near the solvent front. Which explanation is consistent with these observations?
A   Component \mathrm{L} must have the lower molecular mass.
B   Component \mathrm{M} is necessarily a pure element.
C   Component \mathrm{M} forms stronger permanent bonds with the paper.
D   Component \mathrm{L} spends a larger fraction of the run associated with the stationary phase.
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L travels less because it spends a larger fraction of the run associated with the stationary phase. Molecular mass alone does not determine migration. Therefore D is correct.

Final answer

D

Question Q05

heating-curve-evidence[1 mark]
A pure solid absorbs energy while melting at constant pressure. Its temperature stays constant. Which statement describes the particle energies?
A Average kinetic energy and potential energy both increase. B Average kinetic energy increases while potential energy stays constant. C Average kinetic energy and potential energy both stay constant. D Average kinetic energy stays constant while potential energy increases.
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Constant temperature fixes the model mean kinetic energy. Absorbed energy raises potential energy as the solid structure changes during melting. Therefore D is correct.

Final answer

D

Question Q06

phase-name[1 mark]
A patterned molecular crystal disappears into a vapour at low pressure. Tests confirm that the vapour contains intact molecules identical to those in the crystal. Which conclusion is justified?
A The crystal has broken into its elements because the particles are farther apart. B The individual molecules must have increased in size. C Sublimation changes the particle arrangement while preserving chemical identity. D A mixture forms because gas particles move with different speeds.
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The tests explicitly preserve the molecules. Only their arrangement and spacing change when the solid sublimes. Therefore C is correct.

Final answer

C

Question Q09

phase-name[1 mark]
A freeze-dryer removes frozen water from a food sample under reduced pressure. The ice becomes vapour directly without forming liquid water. Which pair describes this process?
A   Condensation; energy released
B   Freezing; energy absorbed
C   Deposition; energy released
D   Sublimation; energy absorbed
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The stated change is directly from solid to gas, so it is sublimation. Separating particles against attractions requires energy uptake. Therefore D is correct.

Final answer

D

Question Q10

kelvin-energy[1 mark]
A gas in a temperature-controlled cell is cooled from 126.85\,{}^{\circ}\mathrm{C} to 26.85\,{}^{\circ}\mathrm{C}. What is the ratio of its final mean particle kinetic energy to its initial mean particle kinetic energy?
A   0.212
B   1.33
C   0.750
D   0.563
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Convert before taking the ratio: T_i=126.85+273.15=400.00\,\mathrm{K} and T_f=26.85+273.15=300.00\,\mathrm{K}. The mean-energy ratio is 300.00/400.00=0.750, so C is correct.

Final answer

C

Tutorial practice

Question Q20

element-compound[4 marks]
An ampoule contains only AB_2 molecules, where A and B are different elements. Cooling changes the gas directly into a solid deposit; analysis finds AB_2 molecules in the solid.
(a) Classify the material as an element, compound or mixture and justify the classification.   [2]
(b) Name the change and state the direction of energy transfer between sample and surroundings.   [2]
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(a) It is a compound [1], containing different elements chemically joined at the fixed A:B ratio 1:2 [1]. (b) The direct gas-to-solid transition is deposition [1]. The sample releases energy to the surroundings [1].

Final answer

Compound: bonded different elements at fixed 1:2 ratio. Deposition; energy released to the surroundings.

Question Q18

T2[4 marks]
A trace of inert coloured gas is introduced at one end of a sealed vessel containing colourless gas. The vessel is kept at constant temperature.
(a) Explain how the colour becomes distributed without stirring.   [2]
(b) Explain why the gas mixture can be compressed, whereas the vessel wall retains its shape.   [2]
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(a) Gas particles move randomly and collide [1]. Initially more coloured particles leave the concentrated region than enter it, producing net diffusion until the composition becomes uniform [1]. (b) Gas particles are widely spaced, allowing gaps to decrease under compression [1]. The solid wall has closely packed particles held near local positions, so it retains shape [1].

Final answer

Random motion produces net diffusion; gas gaps shrink on compression, while solid particles remain near fixed positions.

Question Q19

T2[4 marks]
Supplied equilibrium data for fictional liquids J and K: at 55 ^{\circ}C their vapour pressures are 72 and 40 kPa respectively. At 70 ^{\circ}C they are 100 and 63 kPa.
(a) Which liquid boils at 70 ^{\circ}C under 100 kPa? Justify your choice.   [2]
(b) Predict the direction of change in its boiling temperature if the external pressure is reduced to 72 kPa, using the data.   [2]
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(a) J boils at the specified conditions [1] because its equilibrium vapour pressure at 70 degrees Celsius is equal to the external pressure, 100 kPa [1]. (b) Its boiling temperature decreases [1]. J already has vapour pressure 72 kPa at 55 degrees Celsius, so this lower temperature meets the new boiling condition [1].

Final answer

J; its vapour pressure equals 100 kPa. Its boiling temperature falls to 55 degrees Celsius.

Question Q17

heating-curve-evidence[4 marks]
A pure molecular solid receives energy at a constant rate and fixed pressure. Its temperature rises, then stays at 42.0 ^{\circ}C from 8.0 to 12.0 min while the last solid melts.
(a) Identify the two phases present halfway through this interval and compare their molecular identities.   [2]
(b) Explain why energy input continues although mean particle kinetic energy does not rise.   [2]
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(a) Solid and liquid coexist during the specified melting interval [1]. Molecules retain the same chemical identity in both phases [1]. (b) Constant temperature means unchanged mean particle kinetic energy [1]. Input energy instead increases potential energy as the solid arrangement changes against intermolecular attractions; it does not break covalent bonds inside molecules [1].

Final answer

Solid and liquid; identical molecules. Potential energy rises as intermolecular arrangements change.

Question Q12

kelvin-energy[4 marks]
A gas is cooled until its average particle kinetic energy is 0.800 of its initial value. Its final temperature is 240.0\,\text{K}.
(a) Determine the initial temperature in K.   [2]
(b) Convert the initial temperature to degrees Celsius, to one decimal place.   [2]
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(a) The ratio of model mean energies equals the kelvin ratio: 240.0/T_i=0.800 [1], so T_i=300\,\mathrm{K} [1]. (b) Subtract the scale offset: 300-273.15=26.85\,{}^{\circ}\mathrm{C} [1], giving 26.9\,{}^{\circ}\mathrm{C} to one decimal place [1].

Final answer

300 K; 26.9 degrees Celsius.

Question Q11

mixture-classify[4 marks]
A sealed test cell contains two transparent liquids. They do not react. After standing, there are two layers with a sharp interface. A different cell contains a uniformly coloured liquid whose composition is unchanged by sampling at its top and bottom.
(a) Classify the contents of each cell as homogeneous or heterogeneous, giving an observation supporting each classification.   [2]
(b) The uniformly coloured liquid is claimed to be a pure compound. Explain why the sampling evidence does not establish this claim.   [2]
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(a) The layered cell is heterogeneous because its interface separates regions of different composition [1]. The uniformly sampled cell is homogeneous because top and bottom samples have the same composition [1]. (b) A homogeneous liquid can contain several substances [1]. Sampling alone does not establish a single bonded substance with definite composition [1].

Final answer

Heterogeneous; homogeneous. Uniform sampling does not establish purity.

Question Q15

solution-vocabulary[7 marks]
A maker dissolves 0.600 g of a non-reacting dye in 20.00 g of propanone. The liquid is uniform.
(a) Identify the solute, solvent and resulting mixture using the appropriate three terms.   [3]
(b) Explain why (aq) is unsuitable for the dissolved dye here.   [1]
(c) Calculate the dye mass as a percentage of the total solution mass. Explain why using 20.0 g as the denominator would describe a different ratio.   [3]
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(a) The dye is the solute because it is the material dissolved [1]. Propanone is the solvent, the dissolving medium [1]. The complete uniform mixture is the solution [1]. (b) The solvent is propanone rather than water, so aqueous notation does not apply [1]. (c) Total solution mass is 20.60 g [1]. Percentage dye = (0.60/20.60) times 100 = 2.91% [1]. A 20.0 g denominator compares dye mass with solvent mass rather than with solution mass [1].

Final answer

Dye: solute; propanone: solvent; mixture: solution. It is not aqueous; 2.91% dye by mass of solution.

Question Q16

distillation-procedure[6 marks]
A rinse contains a heat-stable, non-volatile resin dissolved in a volatile liquid. Both components must be recovered without reaction.
(a) Outline a separation that recovers both components, identifying where each is collected.   [3]
(b) State where the thermometer bulb should be positioned in the distillation apparatus.   [1]
(c) Explain why replacing the sloping condenser with an upright reflux condenser would fail to collect the solvent separately.   [2]
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(a) Heat the rinse so that the volatile solvent forms vapour [1]. Pass this vapour through a cooled condenser and collect the resulting liquid in a receiver [1]. The non-volatile resin remains in the original flask and is recovered after suitable drying [1]. (b) Place the bulb in the vapour stream at the side-arm entrance [1]. (c) A reflux condenser cools the vapour and returns liquid to the original flask [1], so no separate receiver collects the solvent [1].

Final answer

Distil and condense the solvent; retain resin in the flask. Bulb at the side-arm entrance. Reflux returns solvent to the flask.

Advanced practice

Question Q13

T1[7 marks]
Four stable non-volatile solids have the supplied solubility behaviour. Neither solvent reacts with them.
\begin{array}{c|c|c}\hline solid & in water & in ethanol \\ \hline P & soluble & insoluble \\ \hline Q & insoluble & soluble \\ \hline R & insoluble & insoluble \\ \hline S & soluble & soluble \\ \hline \end{array}
(a) A dry mixture contains P and Q. Select a solvent that leaves P as the undissolved fraction. Identify the separation method and explain the selection.   [3]
(b) A different dry mixture contains P and R. Outline how to obtain dry P using water.   [2]
(c) Explain why adding water to P mixed with S, filtering and then evaporating all the filtrate would not give pure P.   [2]
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(a) Choose ethanol [1]. It dissolves Q while P remains solid [1]. Filter and retain P as the residue [1]. (b) Add water to dissolve P; filter out R and keep the filtrate [1]. Evaporate the water and dry the remaining P [1]. (c) P and S both dissolve and enter the filtrate [1]. Evaporation then leaves both, so the residue is not pure P [1].

Final answer

Ethanol and filtration; dissolve in water, filter, evaporate; P and S co-recover.

Question Q21

T1[12 marks]
A 9.60 g sample contains solid U and an impurity that remains dissolved on cooling. U has supplied solubilities of 32.0 g per 100 cm^3 solvent when hot and 4.00 g per 100 cm^3 when cold. Use exactly 40.0 cm^3 solvent. Ignore losses. The solvent is volatile; U is stable and non-volatile.
(a) Calculate the hot dissolution capacity and ideal dry mass of U crystals if the sample contains 8.00 g U.   [3]
(b) Explain how to collect cleaner crystals without returning the dissolved impurity to them.   [2]
(c) Outline how to recover the solvent from the separated mother liquor.   [2]
(d) A proposal halves the solvent volume to 20.0 cm^3 to improve recovery. Calculate the minimum hot volume for 8.00 g U and assess whether the proposal can dissolve all U.   [3]
(e) The dried crystals melt over 111–113 ^{\circ}C; a pure U reference melts over 115.0–115.5 ^{\circ}C. Assess the purity evidence without treating crystal mass as a purity measurement.   [2]
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(a) Hot capacity =32.0\times40.0/100=12.8\,\mathrm{g}, sufficient for all 8.00 g U [1]. Cold dissolved U =4.00\times40.0/100=1.60\,\mathrm{g} [1]. Ideal crystal mass =8.00-1.60=6.40\,\mathrm{g} [1]. (b) Separate the crystals from the mother liquor by filtration [1], then rinse with a small cold portion and dry; do not evaporate the impurity-containing mother liquor onto the product [1]. (c) Heat the separated liquid to vaporise solvent [1]; cool the vapour in a condenser and collect the distillate [1]. (d) Minimum hot volume is (8.00/32.0) times 100 = 25.0 cubic centimetres [1]. At 20.0 cubic centimetres the hot capacity is 6.40 g [1], less than 8.00 g, so complete dissolution fails and the purification assumption is lost [1]. (e) The product melts at a lower temperature and over a wider interval than the reference, supporting residual impurity [1]. Recovery mass alone cannot establish composition, and melting observations do not conclusively prove purity or identity [1].

Final answer

12.8 g capacity; 1.60 g U remains dissolved; 6.40 g crystals. Filter, cold-rinse and dry; distil the mother liquor. Minimum hot volume 25.0 cm3; 20.0 cm3 is insufficient. Depressed, broader melting supports residual impurity.

Question Q22

kelvin-energy[10 marks]
A sealed cell of dilute molecular gas cools from 176.85 to 26.85 ^{\circ}C without condensation. A second cell contains the same substance freezing at constant temperature under its own stated fixed-pressure conditions.
(a) Determine the first cell' s final/initial mean kinetic-energy ratio. Use v_{\rm rms}\propto\sqrt{T} to obtain its rms-speed ratio.   [3]
(b) Explain why a horizontal temperature trace in the freezing cell does not imply zero energy transfer or motionless molecules.   [3]
(c) Gas H has four times the molecular mass of gas L; both are at 300 K. Compare their mean kinetic energies and rms speeds. Evaluate a claim that the heavier gas therefore has twice the mean energy.   [4]
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(a) The temperatures are 450.00 and 300.00\,\mathrm{K} [1]. The mean kinetic-energy ratio is 300/450=0.667 [1]. With the supplied relation, the rms-speed ratio is \sqrt{300/450}=0.816 [1]. (b) Energy is released from the freezing sample [1] as its potential energy decreases while its structure changes [1]. Its temperature and mean kinetic energy remain constant; molecular motion, including vibrations, continues [1]. (c) Equal absolute temperatures give equal mean translational energies [1]. Using the kinetic-energy relation, the rms-speed ratio v(H)/v(L) is the square root of m(L)/m(H) [1], giving 0.500 [1]. The greater mass is offset by a lower mean squared speed, so the proposed doubled mean energy is incorrect [1].

Final answer

Energy ratio 0.667; rms-speed ratio 0.816. Freezing releases energy as potential energy falls; mean kinetic energy and motion persist. Equal-temperature gases have equal mean energy; H has half the rms speed of L.

Question Q14

evaporative-cooling[5 marks]
Two equal initial masses of the same pure solvent form exposed liquid films X and Y on different supports. Both films initially have temperature 25.6\,{}^{\circ}\text{C}. Surface evaporation occurs from each film over the same time interval. Neither film reacts, and some liquid remains in each. The measured results are:
\begin{array}{c|c|c}\hline film & mass evaporated / g & final temperature / ^{\circ}C \\ \hline X & 0.067 & 25.6 \\ \hline Y & 0.064 & 22.1 \\ \hline \end{array}
(a) Compare the final average kinetic energies of the particles remaining in X and Y.   [1]
(b) Evaluate the claim that a larger mass evaporated must produce a larger temperature fall. Refer to both films.   [2]
(c) Explain, in terms of particles and energy transfer, how X can evaporate while its temperature remains unchanged.   [2]
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(a) X has the higher final mean kinetic energy because its final temperature is higher [1]. (b) X loses 0.003\,\mathrm{g} more mass but cools by 0.0\,{}^{\circ}\mathrm{C}, while Y cools by 3.5\,{}^{\circ}\mathrm{C} [1]. These results do not support the claimed necessary relation [1]. (c) Energetic surface particles escape, tending to reduce the remaining mean energy [1]. Energy supplied by the support or surroundings can replace that loss in X, keeping its temperature constant [1].

Final answer

X has higher final mean energy; larger mass loss need not cause greater cooling; energy input can compensate.

Connected questions

Question C02

heating-curve-evidence[8 marks]
S1.1 + R1.1 + S2.2. A 30.0 g sample of ice at 0.0 ^{\circ}C receives 12.0 kJ. Assume a melting requirement of 334 J g^{-1} and c_{\rm water}=4.18\,\mathrm{J\,g^{-1}\,K^{-1}}. Pressure is fixed; ignore losses.
(a) Determine whether all the ice melts and calculate the final temperature.   [4]
(b) Explain the different effects of energy transfer during melting and after melting.   [2]
(c) Explain why the volume can decrease during melting without any O–H covalent bonds breaking.   [2]
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(a) Melting requires 30.0(334)=10020\,\mathrm{J} [1], below the supplied 12000\,\mathrm{J}, so all ice melts [1]. Energy left =12000-10020=1980\,\mathrm{J} [1]. Then \Delta T=1980/(30.0\times4.18)=15.8\,\mathrm{K}, giving 15.8\,{}^{\circ}\mathrm{C} [1]. (b) During melting, energy raises potential energy as the intermolecular arrangement changes while mean kinetic energy is unchanged [1]. Afterwards the liquid warms and its mean kinetic energy rises [1]. (c) Hydrogen-bonded ice has an open intermolecular network [1]. Partial collapse allows closer packing at the same mass; the water molecules and their O–H bonds remain intact [1].

Final answer

10.02 kJ melts all ice; 1.98 kJ warms the water to 15.8 degrees Celsius. Intermolecular structure changes during melting; the open ice network partly collapses.

Question C01

kelvin-energy[8 marks]
S1.1 + S1.4 + S1.5. A freely moving piston holds 0.150 mol of dilute gas without leaks. Initially its pressure is 100 kPa and its absolute temperature is 300 K. Heating to 360 K moves the piston against the same external pressure. Apply PV=nRT with R=8.31\,\mathrm{J\,K^{-1}\,mol^{-1}}.
(a) Find the volume at each temperature, reporting both values in dm^3.   [3]
(b) Compare the mean translational energies per particle before and after warming. Explain whether choosing another molar mass would alter this factor.   [2]
(c) Relate the expansion at constant pressure to wall collisions and their momentum transfers. Give one reason a real gas may depart from this ideal model.   [3]
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(a) Convert 100\,\mathrm{kPa} to 1.00\times10^5\,\mathrm{Pa} and rearrange V=nRT/P [1]. Initially V=0.150(8.31)(300)/10^5=0.0037395\,\mathrm{m^3}=3.74\,\mathrm{dm^3} [1]. Finally V=0.0044874\,\mathrm{m^3}=4.49\,\mathrm{dm^3} [1]. (b) Mean-energy factor =360/300=1.20 [1]. In this model the mean translational energy per particle depends on absolute temperature, not molecular mass [1]. (c) Warming increases typical speeds and collision momentum transfers [1]. Expansion reduces wall-collision frequency per unit area enough to keep pressure constant [1]. Finite particle volumes or appreciable attractions invalidate ideal assumptions, especially at high density or low temperature [1].

Final answer

3.74 dm3; 4.49 dm3; mean-energy factor 1.20. Faster collisions are offset by expansion; attractions/particle volume limit the ideal model.

Question C03

evaporative-cooling[8 marks]
S1.1 + R1.1 + S2.2. Liquid M forms hydrogen bonds; comparable-sized liquid N cannot and has weaker overall attractions. An open 40.0 g film of M loses 2.00 g by evaporation. Its evaporation requirement is supplied as 850 J g^{-1}; the support transfers 1.20 kJ into the film. No reaction occurs.
(a) Predict which liquid has the higher equilibrium vapour pressure at the same temperature, explaining the particle basis.   [2]
(b) Calculate the energy required for evaporation and the energy deficit; predict the remaining film' s temperature direction.   [3]
(c) Explain how energetic-particle escape supports this prediction. Describe an apparatus change that recovers the escaping liquid.   [3]
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(a) N has the higher equilibrium vapour pressure [1] because weaker attractions allow more particles to escape at a given temperature [1]. (b) Required energy =2.00(850)=1700\,\mathrm{J}=1.70\,\mathrm{kJ} [1]. Deficit =1.70-1.20=0.50\,\mathrm{kJ} [1]; internal energy of the liquid supplies the balance, so its temperature falls [1]. (c) Preferential loss of energetic surface particles lowers the remaining mean energy when input does not replace the energy loss [1]. Route vapour through a cooled condenser [1] and collect condensed liquid in a receiver, maintaining a pressure-relief path [1].

Final answer

N; weaker attractions. 1.70 kJ required; 0.50 kJ deficit, so the film cools. Enclose the vapour route through a cooled condenser and receiver with pressure relief.

From the book

Photon Chemistry: Study Guide for the IB Diploma (SL & HL)

Introduction to the particulate nature of matter from the core ideas to full exam questions, with question types, worked examples and graded practice.

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